COULD SOMEONE EXPLAIN ASSET MOTHBALLING IN TERMS OF DEPRECIATION?

I am perplexing to figure out how mothballing affects the debasement of the bound asset. For example, if the association mothballs the sold item (e.g. the building), does which at the moment hindrance all debasement losses compared with it? I am perplexing to find the answer in regards to US GAAP, though any recommendation would be appreciated. Thanks